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Endo + REsp — Question 1 of 10

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A 27-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of infertility. She and her husband have been trying to conceive for 2 years; his evaluation was normal. Her menses began at age 13 and were regular until the last few years, when they began occurring at intervals of 3-4 months. She has occasional headaches. On examination she has well-developed secondary sexual characteristics; pelvic examination reveals no adnexal masses. Neurological examination shows diminished vision in the bilateral temporal visual fields. ¹An abnormality originating in which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?

1⠿

no confundiron el tipico adenma de hipofisis prolactinoma es mas frecuente en estos casos

1“bilateral temporal visual fields. ”

no confundiron el tipico adenma de hipofisis prolactinoma es mas frecuente en estos casos

Correct

Answer choices

Explanation

Respuesta correcta: D. Pituitary lactotrophs. Clave clínica (stem-killer): Infertilidad + galactorrea + amenorrea + hemianopsia bitemporal, esposo normal → prolactinoma (LACTOTROFOS). ↑Prolactina inhibe GnRH → hipogonadismo. Tx: agonista dopaminérgico (cabergolina).

Educational objective

Prolactinomas are the most common pituitary adenoma and cause galactorrhea, menstrual irregularities, and infertility. Large adenomas cause headaches from mass effect and bitemporal hemianopsia from optic chiasm compression.

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Source: UWorld
Personal notes: Tema: Prolactinoma / infertilidad

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